ZOOLOGY LECTURE EXAMINATION II



DO NOT WRITE ON THIS TEST BOOKLET CHOOSE THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER



l. During meiosis, separation of homologs occurs during



a. prophase I.

b. metaphase II.

c. anaphase I.

d. telophase II.

e. none of the above.



2. During meiosis, crossing over occurs during



a. prophase I.

b. metapase I.

c. prophase II.

d. anaphase II.

e. telophase I.



3. Mendel's law of independent assortment corresponds to what event in

meiosis?

a. crossing over.

b. separation of the homologs.

c. the splitting of chromatids during meiosis II.

d. anaphase II.

e. telophase II.



4. Mendel's first law is known as the law of



a. segregation.

b. independent assortment.

c. specific inheritance.

d. ontogeny.

e. none of the above



5. An alternate form of a gene best defines

a. dominance.

b. recessiveness.

c. allele.

d. heterozygote.

e. homozygote.



6. The appearance of a trait best describes



a. genotype.

b. phenotype.

c. allele.

d. homolog.

e. homozygote.



7. The generation which consists of pure breeding individuals is the



a. F1 generation.

b. F1 generation.

c. P generation.

d. XY generation.

e. none of the above



8. Whenever the intermediate conditon exists, heterozygotes will appear



a. the same as the dominant character.

b. the same as the recessive character.

c. in between the dominant and recessive character.

d. in males only.

e. in females only.



9. A test cross always involves an unknown individual showing the dominant trait against an individual showing the



a. dominant trait.

b. recessive trait.

c. intermediate trait.

d. dominant or recessive trait.

e. none of the above is correct



l0. Genes which reside on the X chromsome are said to be



a. recessive.

b. autosomally linked.

c. sex linked.

d. independently assorting.

e. dominant in females.



ll. A man who is blood type A marries a woman who is type B. What are the possible blood types of the children?



a. A or B.

b. A, B, or AB.

c. A, B, AB, or O.

d. A, B. or O.

e. AB or O.



l2. A man who is type O marries a woman who is type O. The first child is type A and the man claims that it is not his. Is there any justification to his claim?



a. no, because both might have been heterozygous for A

b. no, because one of them might have been heterozygous for A

c. yes, because O parents can only have O or B children.

d. yes, because being type O, both were homozygous for O.

e. cannot be determined from the information provided.



l3. Color blindness is a sex linked trait. A color blind man marries a woman who had a color blind father. What percentage of their children, by sex, can be expected to be color blind.



a. all of the males and one half of the females.

b. one half of the males and none of the females.

c. one half of the males and one half of the females.

d. one half of the males and one quarter of the females.

e. all of the males and females.



l4. Two grey hamsters are crossed. The offspring included l black hamster, one white hamster, and two grey hamsters. The genotype of the parents was



a. BB or bb.

b. BB only.

c. bb only.

d. Bb.

e. one was Bb and the other bb.



l5. A white hog is crossed with a black hog. All of the offspring are black. A cross of the offspring should produce



a. all black hogs.

b. all white hogs.

c. one half white and one half black.

d. three quarters black and one quarter white.

e. three quarters white and one quarter black.



l6. In Drosophilla, normal wings (W) are dominant to vestigeal wings (w), and normal body color (E) is dominant to ebony body color (e). Give the phenotypes and the ratio of the offspring of a cross between two normal winged and normal body colored individuals who are heterozygous for both alleles.



a. 9 normal normal : 3 vestigeal ebony : 3 normal ebony : l vestigeal normal.

b. 9 vestigeal ebony : 3 normal normal : 3 normal ebony : l vestigeal ebony.

c. 9 vestigeal ebony : 3 normal normal : 3 normal ebony : l vestigeal normal.

d. 9 normal normal : 3 normal ebony : 3 vestigeal normal : l vestigeal ebony.

e. 9 normal ebony : 3 vestigeal ebony: 3 vestigeal normal : l normal normal.



l7. Breeding experiments have provided the following crossover data.



crossovers between genes X and Z = l7%

crossovers between genes X and Y = 30%

crossovers between genes Z and Y + l3%

The correct map and distance for these three genes would be



a. X 30 y l3 Z.

b. X l3 Y l7 Z.

c. X l7 Y l3 Z,

d. X l7 Z l3 Y.

e. X l3 Z l7 y.



l8. The length of hair on a population of rabbits is measured. It is found that while the length of hair on each individual is constant, that there is considerable variation between individuals in terms of hair length. Length of hair ranged from l0 mm to 50 mm but the majority of individuals had hair length between 30 and 40 mm. The length of hair is probably governed by



a. two alleles.

b. two independently assorting pairs of alleles.

c. multiple alleles.

d. many pairs of alleles.

e. none of the above.



l9. A chromosomal abberation in which there is exchange between non-

homologous chromosomes is termed



a. inversion.

b. deletion.

c. insertion.

d. translocation.

e. polyploidy.



20. The type of chromosomal abberation that results from non-disjunction during meiosis is termed.



a. inversion.

b. deletion.

c. insertion.

d. translocation.

e. polyploidy.



2l. An alteration in the genetic code of DNA best defines



a. abberation.

b. deletion.

c. mutation.

d. inversion.

e. translocation.



22. Which of the following is a source of genetic variation in offspring?



a. independent assortment

b. crossing over

c. mutation

d. chromosomal abberations

e. more than one of the above is correct



23. The concept of evolution is significant to biology because



a. it is probably the most interesting topic in the sciences.

b. there is a great deal of evidence which supports it.

c. we all are interested in our origins.

d. it is the central unifying concept for all biology.

e. more than one of the above is correct.



24. The first person to propose a theory of evolution was



a. Pliny.

b. Aristotle.

c. Lamarck.

d. St. Augustine.

e. Darwin.



25. Evolution means



a. natural selection.

b. inheritance of acquired characteristics.

c. punctuated equilibrium.

d. descent from a common ancestor.

e. more than one of the above is correct.



26. Which of the following is not a part of the theory of evolution by natural selection?



a. organisms produce more offspring than can survive.

b. offspring show genetic variation.

c. the genetic variants most adapted to their environment will survive.

d. surviving variants will pass on their favorable traits to their offspring.

e. organisms acquire adaptations as they need them and pass them off to their offspring.

27. When we find a trait in a population that is not in Castle-Hardy-

Weinberg equlibrium, we know that at least for that trait the population is



a. stable.

b. in equlibrium.

c. recessive.

d. dominant.

e. evolving.



28. In a population of snow rabbits, white coat is dominant to black coat. A sample of l00 rabbits is counted and it is found that 75 are white (WW or Ww) and 25 are black (ww). Assuming equilibrium conditions, what is the frequency of the two alleles in the population?



a. W - .75 and w - .25.

b. W - .25 and w - .75.

c. W - .50 and w - .50.

d. W - .35 and w - .65.

e. none of the above



29. In the problem above, what is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population?



a. .25.

b. .75.

c. .50.

d. .40.

e. .60.



30. The type of selection which favors both extremes of a trait distribution curve is termed



a. directional.

b. disruptive.

c. conservative.

d. channelizing.

e. none of the the above



3l. The punctuated view of evolution states that speciation is



a. slow and gradual.

b. relatively rapid.

c. always sympatric.

d. never allopatric.

e. usually sympatric, but sometimes allopatric.



32. The major line of evidence supporting punctuated-equlibrium is derived from



a. comparative anatomy.

b. embryology.

c. biogeography.

d. the fossil record.

e. comparative biochemistry.



33. Changes in gene frequencies in a population which are not due to selection best describes



a. macroevolution.

b. microevolution.

c. genetic drift.

d. punctuated-equilibrium.

e. polygenic inheritance.



34. The event by which a new population is established by one or a few indivduals who enter into a new environment best defines

a. the founder effect.

b. bottleneck.

c. microevolution.

d. macroevolution.

e. none of the above



35. Speciation is defined as



a. the transformation of a population in time.

b. the splitting of a population into two or more new species.

c. the formation of new species by natural selection.

d. the formation of new species by accumulation of mutations.

e. the formation of new species by genetic drift.



36. Changes in gene frequencies within a species is termed



a. macroevolution.

b. microevolution.

c. genetic drift.

d. polygenic inheritance.

e. multiple allelism.



37. The development of new species, genera, families, and higher taxons falls within the domain of



a. macroevolution.

b. microevolution.

c. genetic drift.

d. polygenic inheritance.

e. none of the above.



38. The key factor in allopatric speciation is



a. genetic drift.

b. natural selection.

c. a bottleneck.

d. natural selection.

e. geographic isolation.



39. The rapid development of new species that usually follows the invasion of a brand new environment is known as



a. adaptive radiation.

b. geographic isolation.

c. sympatric speciation.

d. allopatric speciation.

e. none of the above



40. Sympatric speciation in plants requires which of the following events



a. formation of a hybrid.

b. non-disjunction.

c. formation of an allotetraploid.

d. gamete formation by an allotetraploid.

e. more than one of the above is correct

4l. Groups occupying similar environments tend to become similar in form and appearance. This is an example of



a. coevolution.

b. divergent evolution.

c. convergent evolution.

d. the founder effect.

e. bottlenecks.



42. An example of coevolution would be



a. predator-prey.

b. host-parasite.

c. pollinating insects-flowering plants.

d. antibiotic producing fungi-bacteria.

e. more than one of the above is correct





43. The rocky crust of the earth is termed the



a. ecosystem.

b. hydrosphere.

c. lithosphere.

d. biosphere.

e. atmosphere.



44. The ecological unit which consists of a biotic and abiotic component which interact so that they exchange materials is the



a. biosphere.

b. ecosystem.

c. community.

d. population.

e. organism.



45. In an ecosystem, producers support both consumers and decomposers. Producers in turn depend directly upon the

a. first trophic level.

b. consumers.

c. decomposers.

d. animals.

e. plants.



46. The ultimate source of energy for most ecosystems is the



a. thermal energy from the earth.

b. radioactive decay of rocks.

c. sun.

d. cosmic energy.

e. photosynthesis.



47. The rate of energy storage by autotrophs in the ecosystem best defines



a. primary productivity.

b. gross productivity.

c. net primary productivity.

d. biomass.

e. none of the above



48. If we take the gross productivity of an ecosystem and subtract the energy loss due to producer respiration, we have left the



a. primary productivity.

b. net primary productivity.

c. biomass.

d. secondary productivity.

e. none of the above



49. An animal which feeds directly upon grass would occupy the



a. first trophic level.

b. second trophic level.

c. third trophic level.

d. fourth trophic level.

e. fifth trophic level.



50. l000 pounds of biomass at the first trophic level would at maximum, support ___________ pounds of biomass at the third trophic level.



a. l000 pounds.

b. l00 pounds.

c. l0 pounds.

d. l pound.

e. 0.l pound.



5l. Which of the following ecological pyramids can never be inverted?



a. pyramid of numbers

b. pyramid of biomass

c. pyramid of weight

d. pyramid of energy

e. more than one of the above



52. In biogeochemical cycles



a. key nutrients are cycled between the biotic and abiotic components.

b. organic matter is decomposed.

c. inorganic matter is incorporated into living matter.

d. inorganic matter is returned to the lithosphere.

e. more than one of the above is correct



53. During ecological succession, the final, stable community is referred to as the



a. ecotroph.

b. ecomorph.

c. climax.

d. disclimax.

e. sere.



54. The development of a pine forest on a previously ploughed field would be an example of



a. primary succession.

b. secondary succession.

c. tertiary succession.

d. distal succession.

e. none of the above



55. The habitat is where an organism lives, the niche represents



a. the organism's exact position and function in that environment.

b. the ecological dominant in the habitat.

c. the abiotic component of the habitat.

d. biogeochemical cycling of nutrients.

e. more than one of the above is correct



56. When a habitat has a large number of unfilled niches, a (an) ___________will usually occur.



a. ecological disaster

b. evolutionary adaptive radiation

c. competitive exclusion

d. ecological succession

e. none of the above



57. The population interaction whereby two organisms live together in close association is

a. neutral.

b. competitive.

c. predatoru.

d. symbiotic.

e. more than one of the above is correct



58. The type of symbiosis whereby one partner in a relationship is benefited but the other is not harmed is termed



a. commensalism.

b. parasitism.

c. mutualism.

d. competitive.

e. neutral.



59. That period of time in a population's growth when numbers are increasing slowly as the environment is exploited is termed the



a. exponential phase.

b. stationary phase.

c. lag phase.

d. death phase.

e. more than one of the above is correct



60. The total number of organisms that the environment can support is known as its



a. biotic potential.

b. carrying capacity.

c. resistance factor.

d. resource allocation.

e. resource availability.



6l. Which of the following is not a density dependent factor that limits population growth?



a. food

b. disease

c. shelter

d. stress

e. weather



62. All density dependent factors of population control are directly related to the



a. weather.

b. availability of resources.

c. natural disasters.

d. population size.

e. none of the above



63. Which of the following is a major factor that affects marine life?



a. depth of water

b. salinity

c. waves and tides

d. concentration of dissolved nutrients

e. more than one of the above is correct

64. The marine life zone between the high and low tides is termed the



a. neritic.

b. pelagic.

c. littoral.

d. oceaninc.

e. benthic.



65. Small organisms that inhabit the oceans surface waters and which have very limited powers of movement are termed



a. nekton.

b. neuston.

c. plankton.

d. benthos.

e. abyssal.



66. The major factors that influence freshwater life would include



a. temperature.

b. transparency.

c. currents.

d. respiratory gas concentration.

e. more than one of the above is correct





67. Which of the following does not limit life in the terrestrial environment?



a. temperature

b. oxygen

c. moisture

d. gravity

e. geographic barriers



68. The biome which is characterized by broadleaf trees that shed their leaves in the winter is the



a. coniferous forest.

b. tundra.

c. temperate deciduous forest.

d. tropical forest.

e. desert.



69. The biome that is characterized by severe, almost continuous cold is the



a. coniferous forest.

b. tundra.

c. temperate deciduous forest.

d. high desert.

e. none of the above



70. The Eithiopian faunal realm consists of



a. North America.

b. Eurasia.

c. Africa.

d. Southeast Asia.

e. Australia.



7l. The first dinosaurs evolved in the ___________ period.



a. Silurian

b. Devonian

c. Permian

d. Triassic

e. Jurassic



72. The first birds and mammals appeared in the _________ period.



a. Jurassic

b. Triassic

c. Cretaceous

d. Tertiary

e. Quaternary



73. The first vertebrates appear during the _________ period.



a. Silurian

b. Ordovician

c. Cambrian

d. Carboniferous

e. Cretaceous.



74. Most of the invertebrate phyla orginated in the _______ period.



a. Cambrian

b. Precambrian

c. Ordovician

d. Silurian

e. Devonian



75. The fossil species which is thought by many paleoanthropologists to be ancestral to all humans and human like forms that followed is



a. Homo habilis.

b. Homo erectus.

c. Australopithecus robustus.

d. Homo sapiens.

e. Australopithecus afarensis.



76. Primates as a group, seem to have had an ________ begining.



a. desert

b. aboreal

c. plains dwelling

d. cave dwelling

e. none of the above



77. Australopithecus robustus coexisted with



a. Australopithecus afarensis.

b. Homo habilis.

c. Homo erectus.

d. Homo sapiens.

e. Home neaderthalis.



78. One of the major means of absoluting dating rocks is by means of the



a. sodium-potassium system.

b. calcium- chloride system.

c. potassium-argon system.

d. potassium-lead system.

e. none of the above



79. The half life of potassium-40 is

a. l.3 years.

b. l.3 thousand years.

c. l.3 million years.

d. l.3 billion years.

e. l.3 trillion years.



80. In radioactive dating, concordance means that



a. an isotope system has been found that can accurately date the rocks.

b. there are not radioactive isotopes in the rocks.

c. two or more isotope systems give approximately the same dates for the rocks.

d. two or more isotope systems give different dates for the rocks.

e. isotope method disagree with not isotope methods of dating rocks.



ESSAY (20 POINTS)

List and describe the major lines of evidence that support the concept of evolution. Give specific examples whenever possible.State specific examples of concordance of evidence.