Bio2402: Anatomy & Physiology II - EXAM 1A

(19 pages Total)

Choose the best answer.

  1. In which of the following areas do body defense systems play a role?
  1. transplantation of tissues and organs
  2. protection against cancer
  3. defense against microorganisms
  4. allergic responses
  5. all of the above
  1. Specific immunity
  1. is a function of B and T cells
  2. is a body defense which targets against an individual antigen
  3. plays a role only in defense against microorganisms
  4. A and B
  5. B and C
  1. The first line of defense includes
  1. inflammation
  2. T-cell actively
  3. Macrophages
  4. The R.E. system
  5. None of these
  1. Which of the following is a 2nd line of defense
  1. inflammation
  2. phagocytosis
  3. interferon
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above
  1. The ingestion of foreign material and / or damaged tissues by specialized cells is known as
  1. inflammation
  2. phagocytosis
  3. antibody preduction
  4. HMI
  5. None of the above
  1. Macrophages found living the cavities of the liver are termed
  1. Microglia
  2. Kupfer cells
  3. Alveolar
  4. Histiocytes
  5. None of the above
  1. When a body cell is invaded by a virus the cell responds by producing interferon. Interferon then
  1. destroys the invading virus
  2. reacts with the invading virus thereby preventing its reproduction
  3. stimulates the production of an antiviral protein by other cell
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above
  1. IN addition to it's antiviral properties, interferon also plays a role in
  1. anti bacterial actively
  2. anti cancer activity
  3. anti radiation actively
  4. protection against allergy
  5. none of the above
  1. Which of the following can trigger an inflammatory response?
  1. mechanical damage
  2. infections
  3. chemicals
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above
  1. The first component of the inflammatory response is hyperemia, hyperemia results in:
  1. increased blood flow to irritated area
  2. redness if response is at surface of the body
  3. increased warmth of irritated area if at surface of body
  4. all of the above
  5. none of the above
  1. Swelling which usually accompanies inflammation is brought about by:
  1. increased tissue fluid
  2. increased loss of fluid from the circulation
  3. decreased blood flow
  4. a and b
  5. a and c
  1. The process of fibrination which occurs during inflammation:
  1. functions to contain the inflammatory response
  2. functions to prevent the spread of infectious organisms
  3. results from fibrinogen leaving the circulation to the irritated area
  4. requires the aid of fibroblasts
  5. all of the above
  1. The sac which results from fibrination and which fills with pus is termed (when it is closed) a (an):
  1. scar tissue
  2. inversion
  3. abscess
  4. granuloma
  5. none of the above
  1. Lymphocytes which mature in the GALT are referred to as:
  1. T-cells
  2. B-cells
  3. macrophages
  4. plasma cells
  5. monocytes
  1. In order for any kind of specific Immune reaction to occur, antigen must first be processed by:
    1. T-cells
    2. B-cells
    3. plasma cells
    4. macrophages
    5. none of the above

    16. B-cells must be presented antigen by:

    1. plasma cells
    2. macrophages
    3. T-cells
    4. antibodies
    5. any of the above
    1. A complex protein which is produced by plasma cells in response to an appropriate antigen is termed a (an):
    1. antibody
    2. immunoglobulin
    3. complement
    4. a and b
    5. b and c
    1. Any molecule which will stimulate a specific immune response is known as a (an):
    1. antibody
    2. antibiotic
    3. complement
    4. antigen
    5. none of the above
    1. The five classes of immunoglobulins are based upon:
    1. the light chains
    2. the heavy chains
    3. the variable regions
    4. the constant regions
    5. all of the above
    1. Which of the following is not a function of antibodies?
    1. opsonins
    2. anti-toxins
    3. agglutins
    4. precipitins
    5. cell mediated immunity
    1. In order for an antibody to cause lysis of a cell:
    1. inflammation must occur
    2. toxins must be present
    3. complements must be present
    4. basophils must be present
    5. none of the above
    1. Which of the following are carried out by CMI?
    1. delayed allergic responses
    2. rejections of transplants
    3. reaction to poison ivy
    4. reaction to tuberculosis
    5. all of the above
    1. The ability of the immune systems to recognize our own tissue antigens is known as:
    1. tolerance
    2. GMI
    3. recognition
    4. self-awareness
    5. none of the above
    1. A transplanted tissue usually evokes a strong immune response because:
    1. it is genetically different from the host (recipiant)
    2. it possesses on its cell surface antigens which the host's immune systems attack
    3. T-cells recognize it as being foreign and hence set up a CMI response
    4. all of the above
    5. none of the above
    1. HLA:
    1. stands for Human Lymphocyte Antigen
    2. is a genetic complex which controlates the synthesis of antigens which are important in transplant rejection
    3. is to humans what the MHC is to mice
    4. contains the histocompatability genes
    5. all of the above
    1. In order to insure the best chance or success when transplanting organs between humans:
    1. The HLA is typed in order to find the best genetic match
    2. The HLA is usually ignored because typing is not possible
    3. The MHC is typed instead of the HLA because it is more relevant to humans
    4. The HLA is typed but only for heart transplants
    5. None of the above
    1. HLA genes may be determined (typed) by:
    1. serological methods similar to those used in blood typing
    2. biological methods utilizing immune cells such as T lymphocytes
    3. ancestors studies
    4. a and b
    5. b and c
    1. CMI cells can apparently recognize cancer cells because:
    1. cancer is a threat to the body
    2. cancer cells possess transformed antigens which can be recognized as foreign
    3. cancer cells produce special antibodies which T-cells are sensitive to
    4. cancer cells are larger than ordinary cells
    5. all of the above
    1. Diseases which are due to an attack by the immune system on its own body are termed
    1. immunodeficiency disease
    2. self-destructing disease
    3. autoimmune diseases
    4. inflammatory diseases
    5. all of the above
    1. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions involve:
    1. antigens
    2. IgE antibodies
    3. mast cells
    4. histamine and other vasoactive substances
    5. all of the above
    1. Allergic responses:
    1. can be caused by the HMI system
    2. can be caused by the CMI system
    3. are basically overactions by the immune system
    4. can caused death
    5. all of the above
    1. Blood volume in humans:
    2. a. constitute about 7.7% of total body weight

      b. range between 5 to 6 liters in males

      c. range between 4 to 5 liters in female

      d. can be reduced by about 10% without problems

      e. all of the above

      1. The largest part of the dissolved solids found in plasma are (is):
      1. plasma proteins
      2. glucose
      3. fatty acids
      4. dissolved gases
      5. all of the above
      1. If we remove fibrinogen from plasma we have:
      1. whole blood
      2. defibrinogenared whole blood
      3. biaxial plasma
      4. serum
      5. none of the above
      1. The total volume of formed elements in whole blood:
      1. averages about 45% in males
      2. averages about 5% less in females
      3. is known as the hematocrit
      4. a and b
      5. all of the above
      1. Red blood cells:
      1. contains a nucleus
      2. are biconcave disks
      3. are thinner at the center than at the edges
      4. a and b
      5. b and c
      1. Red blood cell generation is stimulated by:
      1. low oxygen levels in the tissues
      2. erythropoeiten released by the kidney
      3. living at high altitudes
      4. all of the above
      5. none of the above
      1. Pernicious anemia is due to:
      1. iron deficiency
      2. fragile erythrocytes
      3. inability to absorb vitamin B-12
      4. all of the above
      5. none of the above
      1. An elevated hematocrit or red count is termed:
      1. pernicious anemia
      2. hemoytic anemia
      3. sicle cell anemia
      4. iron deficiency anemia
      5. none of the above
      1. Leukocytes:
      1. are not capable of movement
      2. move by the use of flagella or cilia
      3. move by amoeboid motion
      4. move only when the body is infected
      5. none of the above
      1. The overall function of the leukocytes is:
      1. oxygen transport
      2. carbon dioxide transport
      3. protection
      4. red cell destruction
      5. none of the above
      1. The function of the reticuloendothelial system is:
      1. reduction of friction in blood vessels
      2. purification of the body fluids
      3. generation of red blood cells
      4. generation of white blood cells
      5. none of the above
      1. The most abundant white cell is the:
      1. eosinophil
      2. neutrophil
      3. monocyte
      4. basophil
      5. lymphocyte
      1. The leukocyte which produces heparin and histamine is the:
      1. eosinophil
      2. neutrophil
      3. monocyte
      4. lymphocyte
      5. basophil
      1. The agranular leukocytes include:
      1. lymphocytes
      2. neutrophil
      3. monocytes
      4. a and c
      5. all of the above
      1. The origin of the granular leukocytes is:
      1. the thymus and lymph nodes
      2. the bone marrow
      3. the spleen and liver
      4. the erthrocytic old cell
      5. none of the above
      1. A person who had a severe reduction in white cells would suffering from:
      1. leukemia
      2. leukopenia
      3. anemia
      4. all of the above
      5. none of the above
      1. Thrombocytes play a role in:
      1. hemostasis
      2. defense against microorganisms
      3. red cell generation
      4. white cell generation
      5. all of the above
      1. Following rupture of a blood vessel the first thing that will happen is:
      1. formation of a clot
      2. formation of a platelet plug
      3. vascular spasm (vasoconstriction)
      4. clot retraction
      5. none of the above
      1. Orothrombin is converted into thrombin through the actions of:
      1. thromboplastin
      2. calcium
      3. fibrinogen
      4. fibrin
      5. a and b

      51.The conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin is catalyzed by:

      1. throboplastin
      2. thrombin
      3. prothrombin
      4. calcium
      5. none of the above
      1. An embolus is:
      1. a surface clot
      2. a clot which forms in the tissue fluid
      3. a clot which forms inside of blood vessels and then moves
      4. a clot which is formed without the action of thrombin
      5. none of the above
      1. If you had a liter of fresh whole blood and you desired to prevent it from clotting you could do this by adding:
      1. citrate
      2. heparin
      3. calcium
      4. a and b
      5. all of the above
      1. A person who had type AB blood would have what type antibody in his or her plasma?
      1. anti A
      2. anti B
      3. both anti A and anti B
      4. neither anti A or anti B
      5. anti O only
      1. The rarest blood type in the population is:
      1. A
      2. B
      3. O
      4. AB
      5. AB and B are equally rare
      1. The children possible for a marriage of two people with type O blood would be:
      1. O and A
      2. O and B
      3. O and AB
      4. O, A, B & AB
      5. O only
      1. A woman has type AB blood and a man has type O blood. The children possible from this combination would be:
      1. A only
      2. B only
      3. A, and B only
      4. A, B, and AB
      5. A, B, and O
      1. If type A blood were mixed with type B blood what would happen?
      1. there would be no reaction
      2. the type A blood would be hemolyzed (dissolved)
      3. the type B blood would be hemolyzed
      4. there would be agglutination due to the reactions of the blood cells with each other
      5. there would be agglutination due to the reactions of the blood cells with the antibodies in the plasma
      1. A person who is A positive:
      1. has type A blood
      2. does not have the Rh factor
      3. has the Rh factor
      4. a and b
      5. a and c
      1. Which of the following conditions might lead to erythroblastosis fetalis
      1. Rh negative father and Rh positive mother
      2. Rh negative father and Rh negative mother
      3. Rh positive father and Rh positive mother
      4. Rh positive father and Rh negative mother
      5. None of the above
      1. Iron in the body which is not stopred in hemoglobin is found in other organs in the forms of iron-protein complexes known as:
      1. hemophilia
      2. hemocytoblasts
      3. ferritin
      4. ferrous sulphate
      5. erytropoiesis
      1. The intrinsic mechanism of blood clotting does not require:
      1. prothrombin
      2. thrombin
      3. calcium
      4. thromboplastin
      5. fibrinogen
      1. Plasmin functions to:
      1. initiated clotting
      2. prevent clotting
      3. retract clots
      4. dissolve clots
      5. neutralize bacteria
      1. The process by which phagocytic cells wall off a center of infection is termed _______ formation:
      1. abscess
      2. granuloma
      3. kinin
      4. histamine
      5. leukotrienes
      1. The process or stimulus which results in the release of CRF by hypothalamic neurons is termed:
      1. infection
      2. abscess formation
      3. granuloma formation
      4. stress
      5. none of the above
      1. Physiological mechanisms which respond to stress include:
      1. glucocorticoid release
      2. activation of the sympathetic nervous system
      3. increased levels of epinephrine
      4. increased ADH levels
      5. more than one of the above is correct




      Bio2402: Anatomy & Physiology II - EXAM 1B


      1. All of the following are functions of the blood except for
      1. chemical homeostasis
      2. physical homeostasis
      3. transport
      4. heat distribution
      5. distribution of neurotransmitters
      1. Which of the following body blood volumes (in liters) would most likely come from a female?
      1. 8.0
      2. 7.5
      3. 6.5
      4. 6.2
      5. 4.8
      1. The larger fraction of normal whole blood consists of
      1. red blood cells
      2. plasma
      3. formed elements
      4. albumin
      5. gamma globulins
      1. Serum consists of plasma minus
      1. formed elements
      2. gamma globulins
      3. fibrinogens
      4. albumin
      5. platelets
      1. The most abundant protein in plasma is
      1. fibrinogen
      2. albumin
      3. gamma globulin
      4. protein hormones
      5. enzymes
      1. Which of the following hematocrits would most likely come male?
      1. 48%
      2. 40%
      3. 38%
      4. 35%
      5. 25%
      1. A healthily male would have a red blood cell count of
      1. 3.0 million/cu mm.
      2. 5.5 million/cu mm.
      3. 5.5 billion/cu mm.
      4. 5.5 thousand/cu mm.
      5. 8.5 million/cu mm.
      1. The original stem cell which gives rise to all other blood cells is the
      1. myeloblast
      2. monoblast
      3. hemocytoblast
      4. lymphpblast
      5. megakaryocytic
      1. Thrombocytes are derived directly from the
      1. hemocytoblast
      2. megakaryocytic
      3. normoblast
      4. myeloblast
      5. lymphoblast
      1. The red blood cell contain all of the following except for
      1. hemoglobin
      2. plasma membrane
      3. Ribosomes
      4. ATP
      5. Nucleus
      1. The substance released by the kidney which increases the rate of red blood cell production is
      1. renin
      2. angiotensin
      3. erythropoitin
      4. urea
      5. carbon dioxide
      1. Worn out red blood cells are destroyed primarily in the
      1. intestine
      2. kidney
      3. liver
      4. pancreas
      5. lymphatic system
      1. Anemia which is due to fragile red blood cells is termed
      1. pernicious
      2. aplastic
      3. nutritional
      4. hemolytic
      5. iron deficiency
      1. Which of the following might result in polycythemia?
      1. long term usage of an oxygen tent]
      2. living at sea level for an extended period
      3. lymphatic cancer
      4. living at high altitude for an extended period
      5. malaria
      1. A person has a white blood cell count of 25,000 per cu mm. This person would most likely be
      1. male
      2. female
      3. very healthy
      4. oxygen deficient
      5. suffering from a severe bacterial infection
      1. The least abundant leukocyte is the
      1. eosinophil
      2. basophil
      3. monocyte
      4. lymphocyte
      5. neutrophil
      1. A differential count has shown that one particular leukocyte constitutes 25% of the total white cell count. Assuming a normal person, this leukocyte is most likely a (n)
      1. neutrophil
      2. lymphocyte
      3. basophil
      4. monocyte
      5. eosinophil
      1. The white cell which is associated with allergies and parasitic infections is the
      1. monocyte
      2. eosinophil
      3. neutrophil
      4. basophil
      5. lymphocyte
      1. The white cell which exists the circulation to become a macrophage is the
      1. monocyte
      2. eosinophil
      3. neutrophil
      4. basophil
      5. lymphocyte
      1. Which of the following cells could develop at a site other than the bone marrow?
      1. erythrocyte
      2. lymphocyte
      3. eosinophil
      4. basophil
      5. neutrophil
      1. An uncontrolled proliferation of white cells would best describe
      1. leukopenia
      2. leukemia
      3. polycythemia
      4. anemia
      5. polyphagia
      1. Platelets function in
      1. the immune response
      2. phagocytosis
      3. hemostaiss
      4. generation of monocytes
      5. typing blood
      1. The substance that initiates clotting in the extrinsic mechanism is
      1. factor X
      2. factor XII
      3. thromboplastin
      4. prothrombin
      5. thrombin
      1. The factor that converts fibrinogen into fibrin is
      1. thromboplastin
      2. prothrombin
      3. factor X
      4. thrombin
      5. factor XII
      1. The enzyme that plays a key role in clot dissolution is
      1. thrombin
      2. prothrombin
      3. thromboplastin
      4. plasmin
      5. alkaline phosphatase
      1. A natural anticoagulant that is found in the body is
      1. EDTA
      2. Sodium citrate
      3. Sodium oxalate
      4. Plasmin
      5. Heparin
      1. An intravascular clot that moves is termed a (n)
      1. embolus
      2. thrombus
      3. prothrombus
      4. platelet factor
      5. plasmogen
      1. A women has type O blood, her husband has type AB. She has a baby that is type O. Based upon this evidence, her husband claims he is not the father. Is there any justification to his charge?
      1. no, because he might be recessive for type O
      2. no, because she might be recessive for type O
      3. no, because O is always dominant
      4. yes, because the father would have to donate at least to O genes, and being an AB, her husband has only one
      5. yes, because the babies father had to donate one O gene and the husband, being AB, has not
      1. Which of the following blood types would not be possible for children born from parents who were AB and A respectively?
      1. O
      2. AB
      3. A
      4. B
      5. Rh positive
      1. If the red blood cell contains the A antigen, then the associated plasma will contain
      1. antibody A
      2. antibody O
      3. antibody B
      4. both antibody A and B
      5. both antibody B and O
      1. The most common blood type in the US is
      1. A
      2. B
      3. O
      4. AB
      5. Rh negative
      1. Which of the following combinations might lead to erythroblastosis fetalis?
      1. rh negative father and rh negative mother
      2. rh negative father and rh positive mother
      3. rh positive father and rh positive mother
      4. rh positive father and rh negative mother
      1. The rhogam shot contains
      1. rh antigen
      2. antibody against the rh factor
      3. CMI suppressing drug
      4. HMI suppressing drug
      5. Rh negative blood cells
      1. The first line of defense against infection for the organs that open to the outside of the body is the
      1. phagocytic cells
      2. skin
      3. mucous membranes
      4. serous membranes
      5. interferon
      1. The principle phagocytic cell found in the tissues is the
      1. neutrophil
      2. eosinophil
      3. macrophage
      4. basophil
      5. Mast cell
      1. The monocyte/ macrophage cell line makes up the
      1. myeloid system
      2. mononuclear phagocytic cell system (MPS, RE system)
      3. granulocyte system
      4. lymphocyte system
      5. first line of defense
      1. The redness and warmth of an inflamed area is directly due to
      1. hyperemia
      2. increased permeability of capillary beds
      3. defensive fibrin
      4. pus formation
      5. chemical mediators
      1. Pus formation is largely a function of
      1. histamine
      2. fibrinogen
      3. phagocytes
      4. prostaglandis
      5. repair processes
      1. Which of the following substances can serve to attract phagocytic cells in the inflammatory response?
      1. leukotrienes
      2. complement
      3. prostaglandins
      4. kinins
      5. histamine
      1. Which of the following substances, released during the inflammatory response, can initiate fever?
      1. leukotrienes
      2. complement
      3. prostaglandins
      4. kinins
      5. histamine
      1. The category of interferon which is produced by fibroepithelial cells is
      1. alpha
      2. beta
      3. gamma
      4. delta
      5. epsilon
      1. The target of NK (natural killer) cells seems to be primarily
      1. soluble toxins and bacteria
      2. bacteria only
      3. cancer cells only
      4. cancer cells and virus invaded cells
      5. virus invaded cells only
      1. A major reason that fever functions as a protective response is that
      1. it slows down metabolic reactions permitting recovery
      2. it slow down that inflammatory response
      3. most disease reactions occur slower at elevated body temperatures
      4. viruses do not invade body cells at higher temperatures
      5. most microorganisms do not grow well at elevated temperatures
      1. Immunity that is mediated by substances dissolved in the plasma is referred to as
      1. cell mediated immunity
      2. humoral mediated immunity
      3. chemically mediated immunity
      4. soluble substance immunity
      5. antigen mediated immunity
      1. Which of the following would probably be antigenic?
      1. an inorganic molecule
      2. a small organic molecule
      3. a lipid
      4. a protein
      5. an injectable drug
      1. The macrophage will present antigen directly to a (an)
      1. cytotoxic T cell
      2. Bcell
      3. T helper cell
      4. T suppressor cell
      5. Neutrtophil
      1. In order for a B cell to start producing antibody, it must be stimulated by
      1. antigen
      2. chemicals from T suppressor cells
      3. chemicals from macrophages
      4. antigen and chemicals from T helper cells
      5. antigen and chemicals from macrophages
      1. The lymphocyte that can contact and destroy other cells is the
      1. T helper cell
      2. cytotoxic T cell
      3. B cell
      4. plasma cell
      5. T suppressor cell
      1. You have determined that a population of cells has MHC (HLA) Class II antigens on their surface. You would conclude from this that these cells are
      1. anucleate
      2. T lymphocytes
      3. cytotoxic T cells
      4. antigen presenting cells
      5. antibody producing cells
      1. In order to be "read" antigen must be presented combined with
      1. antibody
      2. MHC antigens
      3. MHC antigens
      4. gamma interferon
      5. interleukinn II
      1. Endogenous antigen can be presented by _______ to _______.
      1. macrophages, B cells
      2. B cells, macrophages
      3. nucleated cells, helper T cells
      4. nucleated cells, cytotoxic T cells
      5. anuncleated cells, helper T cells
      1. Interleukin I functions to
      1. initiate antibody production
      2. activate B cells into plasma cells
      3. convert T helper cells to T suppressor cells
      4. activate helper T cells
      5. instruct B cells to stop dividing
      1. Cytotoxic T cells are stimulate to proliferate and grow by
      1. Interleukin I
      2. Interleukin II
      3. BCDF
      4. BCGF
      5. tumor necrosis factor
      1. A typical immunoglobulin would consist of
      1. one heavy chain and one light chain
      2. two heavy chains and one light chain
      3. two heavy chains and three light chains
      4. three heavy chains and three light chains
      5. two heavy chains and two light chains
      1. Antigen is bound to immunoglobulin at the
      1. constant regions of both light and heavy chains
      2. constant region of the heavy chain only
      3. constant region of the light chain only
      4. variable regions of both light and heavy chains
      5. variable region of the light chains only
      1. The immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta is
      1. IgG
      2. IgA
      3. IgM
      4. IgD
      5. IgE
      1. The immunoglobulin that is secreted onto the surface areas of the body that open to the outside is
      1. IgG
      2. IgA
      3. IgM
      4. IgD
      5. IgE
      1. Antibodies (immunoglobulins) that react with viruses and destroy their ability to infect cells are known as
      1. neutralizing
      2. opsonins
      3. lysins
      4. agglutinins
      5. precipitins
      1. Immunoglobulin that promote the lysis of cells can only function in conjunction with
      1. cytotoxic T cells
      2. macrophages
      3. gamma interferon
      4. interleukin II
      5. complement
      1. The complement systems participate in all of the following except.
      1. lysis of cells
      2. toxin inactivation
      3. intiation of inflammation
      4. activation of helper T cells
      5. enhancement of immunoglobulin formation
      1. In CMI, the target is always
      1. a soluble antigen
      2. a toxin
      3. another cell
      4. exogenous
      5. non-living
      1. In addition to cytotoxic T cells, _______ also play a major role as effectors of CMI
      1. helper T cells
      2. B cells
      3. macrophages
      4. plasma cells
      5. immunoglobulin
      1. T delayed hypersensitivity cells may be
      1. either CD8 or CD4 cells
      2. HMI memory cells
      3. B cell activators
      4. IgE stimulators
      5. antibody inhibiting cells
      1. The mechanism of tolerance probably is due to
      1. destruction of any lymphocyte that will react with foreign antigen during embryology
      2. destruction of any lymphocyte that will react with self antigens during embryology
      3. population of helper T cells that will react with self antigens
      4. population of B cells that will react with self antigens
      5. population of macrophages that can process self antigens
      1. The physical basis for immunity to an antigen that has been encounters is the presence of
      1. lymphokinis
      2. macrophages
      3. memory lymphocytes
      4. natural killer cells
      5. gamma interferon
      1. An example of artificial immunity would be antigen exposure by
      1. an infected wound
      2. eating food
      3. drinking water
      4. vaccination
      5. sexual contact
      1. The destruction of mismatched tissue grafts is largely mediated by
      1. B cells
      2. B cells and immunoglobulin
      3. B cells and natural killer cells
      4. neutrophils and eosinophils
      5. cytotoxic T cells and macrophages
      1. The condition in which the immune system reacts with self antigens is known as
      1. graft rejection
      2. delayed hypersensitivity
      3. autoimmune disease
      4. immediate hypersensitivity
      5. artificial immunity
      1. Allergies are referred to as hypersensitivities because
      1. they are due to infectious organisms
      2. they are cause by non-living agents
      3. they represent a failure of the immune system to respond
      4. they represent over reactions by the immune system
      5. they are always mediated by IgD
      1. In immediate hypersensitivities, immunoglobulin attaches to
      1. mast cells
      2. macrophages
      3. helper T cells
      4. cytotoxic T cells
      5. B cells
      1. A body wide allergic response which is mediated by IgE best defines
      1. delayed hypersensitivity
      2. anaphylaxis
      3. graft rejection
      4. cell mediated allergy
      5. the tuberculin response
      1. All of the following are defensive responses to cancer except for
      1. destruction of tumor cells by helper T cells
      2. destruction of tumor cells by cytotoxin T cells
      3. destruction of tumor cells by activated macrophages
      4. destruction of tumor cells by NK cells
      5. lysis by antibody and complement
      1. In the hemoglobin molecule, iron is found associated with
      1. alpha chains only
      2. beta chains only
      3. one alpha and one beta chain
      4. all of the heme groups
      5. two of the four heme groups
      1. People suffering from SCID
      1. have only HMI
      2. have only CMI
      3. have lost all phagocytic cell activity
      4. can produce IgM
      5. have neither HMI or CMI
      1. One chemical attribute of the skin that repels pathogenic bacteria is
      1. keratin
      2. lysozome in skin secretions
      3. alkaline pH
      4. neutral pH
      5. alkaline phosphatase
      1. HIV destroys the immune response by destroying
      1. cytotoxic T cells
      2. B cells
      3. helper T cells
      4. NK cells
      5. macrophages
      1. Secondary responses (memory) of the immune system to a given antigen are usually faster and much more intense that the initial (primary) response because
      1. there is usually less antigen the second time around
      2. there exist large quantities of memory cells for the antigen
      3. there are large quantities of essential lymphokinis
      4. B cells are more reactive
      5. macrophages are present in much greater numbers
      1. Anaphylaxis is an example of a type _______ immune response
      1. I
      2. II
      3. III
      4. IV
      5. V
      1. Another name for type II allergic responses is
      1. cytotoxic reaction
      2. immune complex hypersensitivity
      3. delayed hypersensitivity
      4. immediate hypersensitivity
      5. allergic contact dermatitis
      1. All of the following are possible reasons for an autoimmune reaction except for
      1. new antigens appear on the surface of body cells
      2. a decrease in helper T cells has occurred
      3. cross reaction of self antigens with similar foreign antigens
      4. appearance of antigens that had been sequestered early in embryology
      5. a deficiency in T suppressor cells